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 Post subject: So most are more pagan than Christ like?
Posted: Thu Sep 25, 2014 5:42 pm 
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Senior Member

Joined: Sat May 13, 2006 10:24 pm
Posts: 78
Hello,
This is not about me!

Since "we" are to "STUDY to show ourselves approved"

And most on the "wide road that leads to destruction" do NOT do any REAL studying, but rather just LISTEN to other sinners who pretend to be studying.

Let us see...
Just WHO is your saviour?

First:
I do not have ANY time for debates on this topic because I've been "approved" because of the "study." Besides that would be a Psa. 1: 1 situation that I am supposed to avoid.

A REAL HISTORY LESSON.

Where did the " j " come form?

Quote:
Around 1000 B.C. The Phoenicians and other Semites [people governed by a woman] of Syria and Cannan began to use a graphic sign in their forms. They gave it the name yodh, meaning “hand,” and used it for a semiconsonant y, as in English boy, boys. After 900 B.C. the Greeks borrowed The sign from the Phoenicians, using at first various angular versions, and then a simplified form They also changed its name to iota and made it stand for their vowel i. The Greek form passed unchanged via Etruscan to the Roman alphabet. The Romans used the sign both for the vowel i and for the semiconsonant y, as in IECIT. When subsequently the need arose to differentiate the two sounds, an unsystematic habit grew up of adding a tail to the i for the semiconsonant, as in the late Roman and medieval [mid-evil] Uncial and Cursive. The distinction was not fully established until the 17th century, when the capital and small letter [j] took their modem forms The dot on the small letter was carried over from the letter i.


American Heritage Dictionary

Quote:
"Because the letter J derived from the " I," and had the same sound, it was classed as a vowel. The letter " I " comes from the Greek “iota,” which is the Hebrew “yothe.” Both have a vowel sound. There is no “ J ” sound in the Anglo-Saxon, let alone Hebrew, and no Roman form to work from.


The " j " was first pronounced as the " I " until the printing press was introduced. Gradually the letter " j " acquired its own sound through French influence.

Webster’s Universal Dictionary (1936) discloses the early relationship between " I " and " J ":

Quote:
"As a character it was formerly used interchangeably with “ i, ” both letters having originally the same sound; and after the “ j ” sound came to be common in English, [1700s] it was often written where this sound must have been pronounced. The separation of these two letters is of comparatively recent date, being brought about through the influence of the Dutch printers.

And
Quote:
The printing press soon replaced the laborious copying by scribes the longhand editions of the Bible. No evidence has come to light that shows the letter " I " ever had the consonantal sound of the letter " J ".

This is shown in the New Funk and Wagnall Encyclopedia:

Quote:
"Not until the middle of the 17th century did this usage become universal in English books; in the King James Bible of 1611 for example NT, the words Iesus and judge are invariably Iesus and iudge.
This is corroborated by the authoritative Oxford English Dictionary concerning the letter J. The J or j types are not used in the Bible of 1611…"


Webster’s New International Dictionary explains:

Quote:
"J is a comparatively late variant from the Latin i which was used indifferently as a vowel or consonant, its consonantal value being that of English Y in yet. The form J was developed from i during the Middle Ages, and it was long used in certain positions in the word merely without regard to the sound as a consonant or vowel. But the lengthened form was often initial, and the initial was usually consonantal, so the j gradually became differentiated from i in function as well as form. It was not, however, until the 17th century that the distinction of j as a consonant and i as a vowel was fully established and the capital J introduced. In English, the regular and practically uniform sound of j as in “jet” (dzh), the same as g in “gem,” dates from the 11th century, that being the sound represented by i when consonantal in words then introduced from old French."


J Sound Same as I Sound

In his book, "Triumph of the Alphabet," author A.C. Moorhouse explains how the Y and the I (hence the J also) were all related in sound. Furthermore, he cites how one language will borrow from another to bring the same sound across. Note his comment on page 128:

Quote:
"The Semitic alphabet had no vowels, but it was essential for intelligibility that the Greek alphabet should have them. This it did by using Semitic letters which represented sounds unknown to the Greek. Semitic yod stood for the semivowel y, and it is easy to use it in Greek for the related vowel i."


The "New Book of Knowledge" confirms the findings of Moorhouse:

Quote:
"The early history of the letter J is the same as the history of the letter “ i .” “ i ” is a descendant of the ancient Phoenician and Hebrew letter “yod” and the Greek letter “iota.” The Phoenicians gave the yod a semiconsonant sound pronounced like the “ Y ” in yellow. While the lower case “ J ” of modern type was derived directly from medieval manuscripts, the capital “ J ” is virtually a printer’s invention. The sound “ J ” as we know it in English today was derived when the “ Y ” sound eventually passed into a “dy” sound and later into the “ J ” sound as in juggle."

Eventually, all modern languages picked up the new sound from Latin. Under the topic “ J .”


Collier’s Encyclopedia shows how this happened:

Quote:
"Introduced as a sign for the consonantal sound of “ i ” in Latin words, the letter j was soon used in English, French, and Spanish to represent the sound that developed out of Latinic consonantic i in each of these three languages. This was a certain improvement, since these three sounds (y, z, dz) which all developed out of the Latin consonant i , did not exist in Latin, and the Latin alphabet had no sign for them."


So the bottom line is...
There was NEVER a " J " in HIS NAME until the still pagan convolutions came in and CHANGED the NAME to worship the BENT " t " of tamus who they all also worship on December 25 as a birthday of their PAGAN god.

If you can SEE . . . .the BENT "' t "" for tamus [or Nimrod] which devolved and or TURNED around to form a small "" j "" than to become a "" J. ""

The PAGAN symbol for [t]amus or Tamus the pagan false god is represented by the CROSS that was regurgitated by another PAGAN called Augustine.

There was NEVER a " J " in HIS NAME
And the PAGANS [never really converted into the TRUTH] rather call their god "Ieosus." [HEY Zeus.]
And than "pretend" to know the NAME of the CREATOR the Cosmos.

Matter of FACT: no one could get any closer to the SOUND of the name "Hey Zeus," than the ORIGINAL SOUND of Ieosus in the Latin to English pronunciation of "Yeh Zeus."

And later, after 1730s, the "" i " "became " j " or " J," or the convoluted pagan version of HIS TRUE NAME YHVH....
OR
"YEHOSHUA, which is still the NAME that is ABOVE ALL OTHER names," like the pagan names of the pagan's pretend-a-gods.

JUST who is your saviour?

Is he / she actually called by a pagan name?

Does it matter who you WORSHIP?

Answer: Not to the pagans who believe a STRONG delusion and utter "Hey Zeus," or Ieosus in their sin-o-gods of Satan.

_________________
. . ."And they that belong to Christ's HAVE crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts." Gal 5:24 "Who-so-ever sins belongs to the devil. . . " 1Jn.3:8 So do you really BELONG to Christ?


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 Post subject: Re: So most are more pagan than Christ like?
Posted: Mon Oct 06, 2014 12:35 pm 
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Senior Member

Joined: Sat May 13, 2006 10:24 pm
Posts: 78
More on the above topic....

Lev 21:6 "They shall be holy unto their GOD/ CREATOR, and not profane the name (H8034, שׁם shêm, name (literally or figuratively), (authority, character) of their GOD/ CREATOR: for the offerings of the WORD made by fire, and the bread of their GOD/ CREATOR, they do offer: there-forward they shall be holy."

Lev 22:32 "Neither shall you profane MY holy name (H8034, שׁם shêm, name (literally or figuratively), (authority, character,) but I will be hallowed among the children of Yisrael: I am the WORD which hallow you,"
Hollow = created you wholly, or completely.

John 3:18 "They that believes on HIM are not condemned: but they that do not believe are condemned already, because they have not believed in the name (G3686, to G3685 ὄνομα, onoma, on'-om-ahto a “name” (literally or figuratively), (authority, character) of the only begotten Son of GOD."

John 16:26 "At that day you shall ask in MY name (G3686, or 3685 ὄνομα, onoma, on'-om-ah, a “name” (literally or figuratively), (authority, character) and I say unto you that 'I will not pray to the FATHER for you:'"

Act 2:21 "And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call (G1941, epikaleomai , ep-ee-kal-eh'-om-ahee, to invoke (for aid, worship, testimony, decision,) on the name (G3686,ot G3685 ὄνομα, onoma, on'-om-ah a “name” (literally or figuratively), (authority, character) of the WORD, they shall be saved (G4982, σῶς sōs̄ to save, that is, deliver or protect. . . )"

The ORIGINAL WORD was NOT just in a “NAME!”

In the ORIGINAL WORDS of the ORIGINAL WORD meant QUOTE: (G3686, onoma, on'-om-ah, to G1097 (compare G3685); a “name” (literally or figuratively), (authority, character) (end of quote) and the WORD was not just a PROPER ENGLISH NOUN, starting with a “J,” or any other such Proper Noun from any other language nor any other translation, as such!

As the ONLY correct meaning of the translated word, “name” (in English) was and is, and will be forever. . "Character!"
And Character is a Nature, or actual ONE and ONLY DIVINE Disposition [you may know as the translated word as “SPIRIT?”) But is the REAL Attitude, thoughts, Character, quality, behaviour, attributes or WISDOM of the WORD of CREATION / WHO is the WORD, YHVH, and that is HIS exact Character or NATURE, and not just the translated word . . ."Proper Noun name!"

NAME H8034 שׁם, (שׁם shêm shame A primitive word (perhaps rather from H7760 through the idea of definite and conspicuous position; compare H8064); an appellation, as a mark or memorial of individuality; by implication honor, authority, character -

Webster's 1847 Dictionary
QUOTED as Copied and pasted verbatim [Bold added for clarity.]

Quote:
Name

NAME, n.

1. That by which a thing is called; the sound or combination of sounds used to express an idea, . . . . quality or act; an appellation attached to a thing by customary use, by which it may be vocally distinguished from other things.

2. The letters or characters written or engraved, expressing the sounds by which a person or thing is known and distinguished.

4. Reputation; character; that which is commonly said of a person; as a good name; a bad name.

5. Renown; fame; honor; celebrity; eminence; praise; distinction.

6. Remembrance; memory.

8. Authority; behalf; part; as in the name of the people. When a man speaks or acts in the name of another, he does it by authority or in their behalf, as their representative.

10. In Scripture, the name of God signifies His titles, His attributes, His will or purpose,, His honor and glory, His WORD, His grace, His wisdom, power and goodness, His worship or service, or God Himself.


ISBE (International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia.) Copied with BOLD added!

Quote:
nām (שׁם, shēm; ὄνομα, ónoma; Latin nomen (2 Esd 4:1); verbs ὀνομάζω, onomázo; Latin nomino (2 Esd 5:26)): A “name” is that by which a person, place or thing is marked and known. In Scripture, names were generally descriptive of the person, of his position, of some circumstance affecting him, hope entertained concerning him, etc., so that “the name” often came to stand for the person.


Why is it more important to be "made the IMAGE" of the DIVINE CHARACTER or NATURE of the DIVINE CREATOR, besides just knowing a English proper noun name in "YOUR" language?

Reason:

Mat 7:21 "Not every one that says unto ME, LORD, LORD, ( G2062, koo'-ree-os, From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority. . .) shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but they that do the will of MY FATHER which is in heaven."

Most just "SAY" the proper noun but do NOT do the complete WILL of the WHOLE WORD!

So is any one "name," in any Language going to get you "Fit for the kingdom" and ready for an eternally "favourable" outcome "Judgement Day?"

Best be about out and about "DOING the complete WILL of the CREATOR" rather than just using a name invented after 1736 AD.

HE said .... "WHY do you call ME 'LORD, LORD and do NOT do the things I told you to do." Luke 6:46

And just HOW does anyone, who has another LANGUAGE, get in to the kingdom, if they never use a "name" that was NOT used until 1736 AD?

How did 3000 get added to the kingdom on the Pentecost, Act 2:41. . . without that "name," since MOST did NOT speak English on that DAY?

Matter of FACT:

MOST all who were added anywhere (other than Greece) before 1736 AD NEVER even HEARD that "name.'
Did they?

That is 1611 YEARS until the 1611 Version came out and a total of 1736 (Seventeen HUNDRED) YEARS without a "J."

So how did anyone get into HIS kingdom without that "name" until the so-called AUTHORIZED version hit the streets?

HOW?

PS
I really do NOT need to hear ANY answer to those questions, more than YOU need to answer them "INSIDE" yourself, as YOU . . . "GO YE" doing HIS complete WILL.

_________________
. . ."And they that belong to Christ's HAVE crucified the flesh with the affections and lusts." Gal 5:24 "Who-so-ever sins belongs to the devil. . . " 1Jn.3:8 So do you really BELONG to Christ?


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